General Questions

I have VLAN1 as trunk-port in the switch, and then I have two other VLAN's configured spread over the remaining switch-ports.

Yet I see now in the DHCP-logs that my VLAN-pc's all get their leases from VLAN0.

How come? I dont have any VLAN configured as VLAN0, I dont even know if 0 is a valid option in the switch.
Ok if it had said VLAN1 everywhere, since thats the trunk I could have understood that (even if none of the pc's are on VLAN1 of course), but VLAN0....no I dont get that at all.

Anyone? Normal behaviour of m0n0wall or?

And everytime the switch renews DHCP-lease from one of those other VLAN's, then the swith has an entry like this in system-logs.

kernel: arp: 192.168.2.14 is on vlan0 but got reply from 00:1e:2a:ae:53:ed on vlan1

That is the switches IP and the switches MAC.
So the router says "hey, this IP belongs to vlan0, but your MAC is on vlan1".

vlan0 though, does not exist anywhere.
vlan1 is the trunk so ok it might be correct for MAC showing there, even though it gets its IP from another higher vlan#.

In firewall logs and stuff, if somethings listed, then the correct vlan-numbers are shown for everything.